Musical Relativism?

Halfway through the required Hermeneutics Lecture Series by Dr. Walt Russell (I only fell asleep twice so far!...slightly better than last year...) I got an idea for a question.

In his lecture, Dr. Russell points out the relativistic/existencial view that has taken hold of our culture and society in the late 20th Century. This view causes us to view the individual (i.e. Me) as the sole point of reference. In extremeist form, radical relativism pretty much says that everything is only interpreted by the individual. As applied to Hermeneutics, our culture sort of brainwashes us into thinking that our interpretation of scripture is what matters. The emphasise becomes what I think of God and not what God thinks of me.

Another background info is the series of posts upon Beauty that Dr. Reynolds has been posting. The first article of the series is here:

http://www.scriptoriumdaily.com/2008/01/18/what-my-nana-taught-me-beauty-matters/

Basically, he in article IV he argues for the existence of beauty based on experiences that illicit unanimous, universal responses from any normal person.

Okay, so I was playing Bach and then it hit me. Is Music relative? At least in my experience, I have found Music, especially Rachmaninoff's, to be extremely Beautiful. So if things Beautiful are objectively beautiful, then what about interpretation of music?

In my limited musical experience, I've discovered that alot of weight is placed on personal interpretation of a piece of music. Yet, I find this hard to reconcile with Dr. Russell's argument in favor of putting the most emphasis on Authorial intent. Meaning that what the author is trying to convey is actually the most important thing (which I agree with).

If I were to apply the same train of reasoning to a piece of music, then the intention of the composer should be the most important thing. (???)

Yet so much emphasis is placed on personal interpretation of music. Now a point to note hear would be that interpretation is different from playing it well. Anyone can play the notes, but to express it well, takes it another step and is (so I am told) what defines a musician. The personal expression of music.

This whole question has also been fueled by a series of lectures I'm listening to on Classical Music. In ancient Greece, the concept of music was that it was a sonic manifestation of the order of the universe and that it was a way in which the individual could express himself. Their concept of music was humanistic (sorry my terms are so jumbled!). In the Medieval times, this view of music changed to one in which music was a supplement to the Church. Views of Music went through some more changes and then cycled back to now where we generally hold to the Grecian view of music. (I think).

So what I'm trying to ask is this: Is the emphasis placed on personal intepretation of Music a result of cultural influences or is it a result of the inherent Beauty of a Composer's music melding with the intentions of a performer? Is the emphasis we place on personal interpretation a good thing?

AHHHHHH!!!! =]